I am just starting out on analyzing banking stocks. Couple of queries:
- Skin in the game: Understand that VV holds less stake directly (0.4%). Does he hold stake indirectly in the firm?
- NIM: NIM is 6%+, which appears more in the range of a small finance bank (vs. 4% levels seen in normal good banks). Is this because of the advances yield given at historical high levels when it was a NBFC? If so, then there could be a reversion to mean of NIM as these loans mature and new loans are obtained at bank lending rates. Is this understanding correct?
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