You could have said, apparent rental income is accounted in share price, there’s no way it could be accounted in profit and loss. Without any real transaction how can you say that it is being accounted in books.
This argument might make sense that share price has discounted it, books of accounts don’t show hypothetical pictures, and there’s no rule written and unwritten which allows a company to lease assets to itself unless property is held by trust or subsidiary
There is no compect of notional revenue and what you’re saying would have been true, companies might own hundreds of properties and lease it to self and inflat it’s revenues like crazy.
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