I was going through the earnings call and there are a few observations, can someone confirm that my understanding is correct?
Mr Pratik Kothari here asks about the capex plan of 200 Cr of which only 40Cr has been done YTD. The answer is not very clear to me, what I understand that they have already placed the order (so essentially capex is done) but it is not yet recorded in the books as equipment isn’t delivered yet (accruals basis of accounting).
Mr Garvit goyal, here follows up on the question to get more clarity and, IMO, the Mr Kamlesh isn’t making it easy to understand with his response.
Fortunately, Mr Garvit is persistent to get clarity, and asks if 180 Cr is supposed to get capitalised. (Which, as I understand, will be added to the books as assets once the orders are delivered.) To which, Mr Kamlesh answers Yes.
Overall, I felt that answers from Mr. Kamlesh weren’t very clear and it felt like he was trying to hide something. Or maybe, I don’t understand the jargon very well and reading too much into it. Is my understanding correct? Can someone throw some light here?
In my defence, Mr Kamlesh was earlier fumbling with Operating Margin and EBIDTA margin, so I am a bit skeptical about his answers.
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